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It sounds like I may be in a similar situation, Todd: sold my business in 2010. While I had no W-2 income in 2011, I did have income from investments (capital gains, dividends, etc). Does that mean that the zero-tax Roth conversion won't work for my situation? Or is there something I don't understand? Could you give, or point me to a simple example to answer the question: how much in investment gains can I have while still doing a zero-tax Roth conversion?
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